If anyone here has read the novel (or not), could you clarify for me whether there was non-consensual intercourse between Princess Dodolea and Duke Theo?
I'm not sure about that. In chapter 66, when the Duke dreams about the meeting he had with the princess in the Palace, I got the impression that in addition to the sedative, an aphrodisiac was also used on him and Dodolea's speech about "wanting to have his child" plus the fact that she was on top of him and had time for doing whatever she pleased with him (we don't know how much time has passed), left me intrigued.
And this hypothesis intensified when, in chapter 81, the princess' servant tells the Duke that Dodolea gave him everything she had... did he were referring to Dodolea's virginity? Because I don't believe he knew that the princess's body was taken over by the spirit of a witch.
I think it's pretty much implied that there was some kind of assault or grape that happened there. The fact that theo freezes whenever he's near the princess and abhors going to the palace confirms this
If anyone here has read the novel (or not), could you clarify for me whether there was non-consensual intercourse between Princess Dodolea and Duke Theo?
I'm not sure about that. In chapter 66, when the Duke dreams about the meeting he had with the princess in the Palace, I got the impression that in addition to the sedative, an aphrodisiac was also used on him and Dodolea's speech about "wanting to have his child" plus the fact that she was on top of him and had time for doing whatever she pleased with him (we don't know how much time has passed), left me intrigued.
And this hypothesis intensified when, in chapter 81, the princess' servant tells the Duke that Dodolea gave him everything she had... did he were referring to Dodolea's virginity? Because I don't believe he knew that the princess's body was taken over by the spirit of a witch.